Polity & Governance

Correct answer: (D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, being the oldest member of the Constituent Assembly, was appointed its temporary (provisional) President and presided over the first session on 9 December 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was then elected as the permanent President on 11 December 1946. Hence the provisional President was Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha.

Correct answer: (A) 1 only

The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed an All-India Federation uniting the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States (though it never materialised as the princes did not accede), so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because Defence and Foreign Affairs were 'reserved' subjects kept under the exclusive control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Correct answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Article 368 expressly empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution 'by way of addition, variation or repeal' of any provision, following the prescribed procedure. All three modes are therefore valid, making 1, 2 and 3 correct.

Correct answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills (statement 1 correct); a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha/Council of States (statement 2 correct); the Rajya Sabha must return it within 14 days and may only suggest amendments, not reject it (statement 3 correct). Statement 4 is wrong because the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject the Rajya Sabha's recommendations. Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Correct answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only

After the 2002 amendment of the North Eastern Council Act, the reconstituted Council comprises the Governor and the Chief Minister of each constituent State, plus three members nominated by the President of India. The Union Home Minister is not a designated member of the Council (though the Home Minister chairs it, membership per the Act is as above), so statement 4 is excluded. Hence the correct combination is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Correct answer: (D) Four

Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted in India, under the Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. No fresh commission had been set up after the 2002 one up to December 2023 (delimitation being frozen till the first census after 2026). Hence the answer is four.

Correct answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule, raising the number of scheduled languages to eighteen. Maithili was added later, by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003, so it is not part of the 71st Amendment. Hence the correct set is 1, 2 and 3.

Correct answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Part IX-A of the Constitution deals with Municipalities (their powers etc.), Part XVIII contains the Emergency provisions (Articles 352-360), and Part XX (Article 368) covers amendment of the Constitution. All three matchings are therefore correct, so the answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Correct answer: (C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

Inter-State quarantine, along with inter-State migration, is listed under Entry 81 of the Union List, making it a Union subject; hence option (c) is correct. The other options are wrong: inter-State trade and commerce (Entry 42) and corporation tax (Entry 85) are Union List subjects, and inter-State migration is also a Union subject, not State subjects. Therefore only the statement about inter-State quarantine is constitutionally correct.

Correct answer: (D) Article 21

In the landmark K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) judgment, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right that is intrinsic to the Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed under Article 21. The Court read privacy as an inseparable part of the dignity and personal liberty protected by Article 21, though it also draws sustenance from other freedoms. Hence option D (Article 21) is correct.

Correct answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee was initially constituted as an ad-hoc committee (in 2000) before becoming a permanent/standing committee (statement 1 true), and it does not take up any matter that is sub-judice (statement 3 true). Statement 2 is false because a complaint of unethical conduct can be made by any person, but it must be forwarded through a Member of the Lok Sabha, i.e. it is not restricted to only a Member originating the complaint. Hence only 1 and 3 are correct, giving option C.

Correct answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Women's Reservation Act, 128th Amendment) will remain in force for 15 years (statement 2 true) and provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste women within the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes (statement 3 true). Statement 1 is false because the reservation will take effect only after a delimitation exercise carried out following the first census after commencement, not automatically from the 18th Lok Sabha. Hence 2 and 3 only are correct, giving option C.

Correct answer: (C) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

A Writ of Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from continuing proceedings in a case over which it has no jurisdiction or where it exceeds its jurisdiction. It is preventive and is issued only against judicial or quasi-judicial bodies, not against administrative authorities or the legislature. Hence option C is correct.

Correct answer: (B) 2 only

Under Article 342, it is the President who specifies the tribes or tribal communities to be deemed Scheduled Tribes in relation to a State (in consultation with the Governor), and Parliament can include or exclude them; the Governor does not himself declare a community as an ST, so statement 1 is false. A community notified as a Scheduled Tribe in one State need not be one in another State (statement 2 true), because ST status is State/area specific. Hence only 2 is correct, giving option B.

Correct answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Under Article 113(3), no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India, so statement 2 is correct. As per the official key statement 1 is also treated as correct: the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) is presented in Parliament by the Union Finance Minister on behalf of the government headed by the Prime Minister. Both statements being correct, the answer is option C (Both 1 and 2).

Correct answer: (A) 1 only

Under Article 96, while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over that sitting (statement 1 correct). However, he/she has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings (so statement 2 is false), and is entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes (so statement 3 is false). Hence only statement 1 is correct, giving option A.

Correct answer: (B) 1 and 2

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution (statement 1 correct), and a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but still pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on dissolution of the Lok Sabha (statement 2 correct). However, a bill in respect of which the President has notified an intention to summon a joint sitting does NOT lapse on dissolution, so statement 3 is false. Hence only 1 and 2 are correct, giving option B.

Correct answer: (C) 2 and 3

Prorogation of a House is done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement 1 (that it does not require such advice) is false. Statement 2 is correct: prorogation is generally done after a House is adjourned sine die, but the President may also prorogue a House even while it is in session. Statement 3 is correct: the Lok Sabha is dissolved by the President who, save in exceptional circumstances, acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Hence only 2 and 3 are correct, giving option C.

Correct answer: (A) The principle of natural justice

The answer is 'The principle of natural justice'. 'Due Process of Law' (an American doctrine) means a law must be fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary, and is examined by courts for substantive fairness embodying natural justice. This contrasts with 'procedure established by law' (option b, the Indian A.K. Gopalan position), where a court only checks that a valid procedure was followed. As per the official key, due process is best captured by the principle of natural justice, since it lets courts strike down unfair laws.

Correct answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

The answer is that both statements are correct and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I. Prisons is a State subject (Entry 4, State List), so States frame their own prison rules and run day-to-day administration. This flows directly from the Prisons Act, 1894, which placed the subject under Provincial (now State) Governments. Thus the colonial-era Act is precisely why prisons are State-managed today, making II the correct explanation of I.

Correct answer: (C) It defines and limits the powers of government.

The answer is 'It defines and limits the powers of government.' The chief purpose of a constitution in a modern constitutional democracy is constitutionalism, that is, to establish government but also restrain it by defining and limiting its powers so that authority is not exercised arbitrarily. While a constitution also creates offices and pursues social justice, its foundational purpose is limiting governmental power to protect citizens' rights.

Correct answer: (A) Only one

The answer is 'Only one'. Among the four, only the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body, given that status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, inserting Article 338B. The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body (Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993), the Law Commission is an executive/non-statutory body, and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is statutory (Consumer Protection Act). Hence only one is constitutional.

Correct answer: (D) None

The answer is 'None'. Statement 1 is false because Article 71(2) expressly provides that acts done by the President before the election is declared void remain valid and are not invalidated. Statement 2 is false: under Article 62 read with the requirement of a fully constituted electoral college, dissolution of some Assemblies is not a ground to postpone the presidential election (the poll must be completed before the term expires). Statement 3 is false because the Constitution prescribes no time limit within which the President must assent to a Bill. So none are correct.

Correct answer: (B) Only two

The answer is 'Only two'. Statement 1 is correct: a Finance Bill (other than a Money Bill) is an ordinary bill for Rajya Sabha's purposes, so the Rajya Sabha can amend or reject it. Statement 2 is correct: for a Money Bill (Article 110) the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. Statement 3 is false because a joint sitting is not provided for either a Money Bill or an ordinary Finance Bill in case of disagreement; joint sittings under Article 108 apply only to ordinary bills, not automatically to Finance Bills as stated. Hence two statements are correct.

Correct answer: (B) Only two

The answer is 'Only two'. Under the Fifth Schedule, Scheduled Areas within a State are notified by an Order of the President (statement 1 correct). Administratively the largest unit is typically the district and the smallest a cluster of villages within a block (statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is false: it is the Governor of the State (not the Chief Minister) who submits an annual report to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas, and the report goes to the President, not the Union Home Ministry. Hence two are correct.

Correct answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

The answer is 'Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect'. The Supreme Court has indeed held that reservations under Article 16(4) must be balanced against Article 335, which requires that claims of SCs/STs be considered consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, so Statement-I is true. Statement-II is false because Article 335 does not define the term 'efficiency of administration'; it merely mentions the concept without providing any definition.

Correct answer: (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both statements are factually correct but statement-II does not explain statement-I. Statement-I correctly notes that India's public health system has been oriented mainly toward curative care with limited preventive and rehabilitative services. Statement-II correctly states that health is largely a State subject, with States primarily responsible for organising services. The curative bias is not caused by the decentralised structure, so II is not the explanation of I.

Correct answer: (B) Only two

Statement 1 is correct: Article 355 places a duty on the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance. Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3) exempts persons held under preventive detention from the safeguards of legal counsel and production before a magistrate that apply to ordinary arrests. Statement 3 is false: the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 actually made a confession before a police officer admissible as evidence (a controversial departure from the Evidence Act). Two statements are correct.

Correct answer: (A) Only one

Only one statement (statement 4) is correct. Statement 1 is false because under Article 54 only elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies form the Electoral College; nominated members do not vote. Statement 2 is false because an MLA's vote value depends on the state's population divided by the number of elected seats, not simply on the number of seats. Statement 3 is false: the vote value of an MLA in Madhya Pradesh is 131, which is lower than Kerala's 152, so MP is not greater than Kerala. Statement 4 is correct: Puducherry's per-MLA vote value (16) exceeds Arunachal Pradesh's (8) precisely because Puducherry has a higher population-to-elected-seats ratio. Hence only one statement is correct.

Correct answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. The Flag Code of India, 2002 does prescribe that the ratio of length to height of the National Flag shall be 3:2, so Statement-II is true. However, 600 x 400 mm is not one of the nine standard sizes specified in the Flag Code (the standard sizes are values like 6300x4200, 3600x2400, 1350x900, 900x600 mm etc.), so Statement-I is false.

Correct answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is indeed celebrated on 26 November each year because the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26 November 1949. Statement-II is false because the Drafting Committee under Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was set up earlier, on 29 August 1947, not on 26 November 1949 (which was the date of adoption).

Correct answer: (B) Only two

Only two statements are correct. Statement 1 is false because Home Guards are raised under the State Home Guards Acts, not a Central Government Act (the scheme is administered by states). Statement 2 is correct: Home Guards serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintaining internal security. Statement 3 is correct: Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in border states to assist the Border Security Force in checking infiltration. Hence two are correct.

Correct answer: (B) Only two

Only two pairs are correctly matched. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms is indeed an offence under the Official Secrets Act, 1923, so that pair is correct. Celebratory gunfire endangering others is covered under the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019, so that pair is correct. The second pair is wrong because knowingly misleading or interfering with an officer on duty is dealt with under the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (Section 3-related provisions), not the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which concerns rules of evidence.